[ih] Some Questions over IPv4 Ownership

[William F. Maton]

On Tue, 12 Oct 2010, jfh wrote:

> If I use a particular range of IP addresses long enough, without the
> permission of whoever thinks they own it, do I now own those
> addresses...?  It's clear to me what the engineering answer is, but I
> have no idea what a court might decide.  Hence the question of ownership
> - legal rights - is very relevant.

I've had a phone number for a very long time.  But, the Terms of Service 
say, in part:  "Subscribers do not have any property rights in telephone 
numbers assigned to them."  Oh dear, going down the bumpy road of the 
analogy....

> In fact, I wonder if all the laws currently governing portability of
> telephone numbers also apply in some way to IP addresses, if someone
> decides to litigate?  I know they're very different numbers from an
> engineering perspective, but from a judge's bench...?

Here in Canada, it's been noted that, "that telephone numbers are public 
resources, and as such are not owned by any person or entity." 
(quoting out of CRTC Decision 2004-52.)  OK, there are "prescriptive 
rights" as you point out, but like you also say, a judge may be convinced 
to try and take the analogy within the telecom sphere from phone numbers 
to IP numbers.

Yes, it's a limited analogy to use, ignoring all sorts of nuances as well.

Regarding portability, we have that today with PI-space, for those of us 
fortunate enough to have made it through the door early.  Those of us with 
PI can take our IP numbers with us to a new provider to route.  But the 
question of ownership still remains.

Good discussion all around.

wfms